Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 21.06.2025 02:04
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What are some tips for a girl with low self-esteem to start dating?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
You'll usually find your answer there.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
If you could instantly cancel one social norm, what would it be?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.